Urinary alkalinisation (sodium bicarbonate IV to urine pH 7.5–8.5) enhances elimination of weak acids: salicylates, methotrexate, chlorpropamide
Multiple-Dose AC (MDAC)
For: theophylline, carbamazepine, quinine, dapsone — AC 50g q4h
ECG Changes in Toxicology — Quick Reference Table▶
ECG Finding
Toxin / Drug
Mechanism
Management
QRS >100ms
TCA, cocaine, flecainide, chloroquine
Na+ channel blockade
Sodium bicarb 1–2 mmol/kg IV bolus
QTc >500ms
Antipsychotics, methadone, sotalol
K+ channel blockade
IV Mg 2g; correct K+; avoid QT drugs
Sinus bradycardia
Beta-blockers, Ca2+ channel blockers
Chronotropy ↓
Atropine; glucagon; HDIE
AV block (various degrees)
Digoxin, beta-blockers, CCBs, TCA
Nodal conduction ↓
Specific antidote; pacing if complete
Torsades de pointes
Sotalol, antipsychotics, macrolides
QTc ↑ + pause
IV Mg 2g, isoproterenol, overdrive pacing
Bidirectional VT
Digoxin toxicity
Triggered activity
DigiFab (Digoxin-specific Fab)
Sinus tachycardia
Cocaine, amphetamines, anticholinergics
Sympathomimetic/anticholinergic
Benzodiazepines; phentolamine (cocaine)
Epsilon wave / Brugada pattern
Cocaine, TCAs, propofol infusion syndrome
Na+ channel, RV conduction
Sodium bicarb; remove offending agent
Common Toxidromes — Pattern Recognition
A toxidrome is a cluster of signs and symptoms caused by a class of drugs. Recognising the pattern guides immediate management even before the specific drug is confirmed.
Interactive Toxidrome Identifier & Antidote Guide
Select all symptoms present, then click Identify Toxidrome.
Naloxone (Narcan): 0.4–2mg IV/IM/intranasal — repeat every 2–3 min. Max cumulative dose 10mg. Infusion: 2/3 of effective bolus dose per hour. Short half-life — monitor for re-narcotisation especially with methadone/long-acting opioids.
Physostigmine: 1–2mg slow IV (over 5 min) for severe delirium/seizures. Caution: not for TCA OD (may cause asystole). Symptomatic: cool environment, BZDs for agitation.
Cholinergic / Organophosphate Toxidrome
SLUDGE/DUMBELSMiosisBradycardiaBronchospasm
SLUDGE: Salivation, Lacrimation, Urination, Defecation/Diarrhoea, GI cramps, Emesis
Atropine: 2–4mg IV every 5–10 min — titrated to dry secretions (not heart rate). May need 20–100mg in severe poisoning. Pralidoxime (2-PAM): 1–2g IV over 15–30 min; effective only within 24–48h before "ageing".
Protect responders — decontaminate before resuscitation. PPE essential.
Key difference from opioid: pupils usually normal size (not pinpoint); respiratory depression less marked (except barbiturates)
Flumazenil: 0.2mg IV over 30s, repeat 0.1mg q60s to max 1mg — BZD reversal. Use with extreme caution in BZD-dependent patients (precipitates withdrawal seizures). Do NOT use if TCA co-ingestion suspected.
Specific Antidotes — Recognition & Dosing
Poison / Drug
Antidote
Dose / Route
Key Notes
Paracetamol (acetaminophen)
N-Acetylcysteine (NAC)
See protocol below
Rumack-Matthew nomogram; King's College criteria
Opioids
Naloxone
0.4–2mg IV/IM/IN q2–3min
Short-acting; infusion for long-acting opioids
Benzodiazepines
Flumazenil
0.2mg IV → 0.1mg q60s; max 1mg
Caution in BZD-dependent; avoid if TCA co-ingestion
Endpoint of atropinisation: DRY secretions — NOT heart rate or pupil size
Initial dose: 2–4mg IV (paediatric 0.02mg/kg) Double dose every 5 min if secretions persist: 4mg → 8mg → 16mg → 32mg Maintenance: infusion 10–20% of total loading dose per hour Severe/mass casualty: may require 20–100mg+ in first hour
Signs of Adequate Atropinisation
Dry mouth and skin
Clear chest — no wheeze or crackles
Reduced bronchorrhoea / secretions
HR 80–100 bpm (secondary effect)
Skin flushed, warm, dry
Signs of Over-Atropinisation
Tachycardia >120 bpm
Agitation, confusion, pyrexia
Urinary retention, ileus
→ Reduce infusion rate; do NOT stop abruptly
Pralidoxime (2-PAM) Use
Loading: 1–2g IV (30mg/kg child) over 15–30 min Maintenance: 500mg/h infusion Time window: Must be given within 24–48h before acetylcholinesterase "ageing"
Intermediate Syndrome
Occurs 24–96h after apparent recovery
Proximal limb weakness, neck flexion weakness
Respiratory muscle paralysis — can be fatal
Requires ventilatory support
OP Severity Grading
Grade
Features
Management
Mild
Miosis, hypersalivation, anxiety
Decontamination, oral atropine
Moderate
SLUDGE signs, bronchospasm
IV atropine, 2-PAM, supportive
Severe
Seizures, resp failure, coma
Intubation, high-dose atropine, ICU
Decontamination first! Remove clothing and irrigate skin before treatment to protect healthcare workers
Beta-Blocker Overdose
Glucagon: 3–5mg IV bolus (paediatric 50–150 mcg/kg); follow with 1–5mg/h infusion — bypasses beta receptor
IV Calcium: CaCl2 1g IV (or calcium gluconate 3g) q10–20min up to 3 doses; infusion 0.2–0.4ml/kg/h CaCl2
HDIE: Insulin 1 unit/kg/h + 10% glucose (same as beta-blocker)
Glucagon: 3–5mg IV (less effective than for beta-blockers)
Lipid emulsion (Intralipid): 1.5ml/kg IV bolus over 1 min; repeat x2 if no response; infusion 0.25ml/kg/min x60min — especially for verapamil/diltiazem
Methylene blue 1–2mg/kg for vasodilatory shock
ECMO consideration for refractory shock
Drug-Specific Emergencies
HIGH-RISK PRESENTATIONS: TCA overdose, cyanide poisoning, and carbon monoxide are immediately life-threatening — recognise and treat within minutes.
Causes: accidental weekly vs daily dosing error; high-dose cancer therapy; intentional
Toxicity Features
Mucositis, oral ulceration
Myelosuppression (nadir 5–14 days)
Nephrotoxicity (MTX precipitates in renal tubules at acidic pH)
Hepatotoxicity
Neurotoxicity (leukoencephalopathy)
Leucovorin (folinic acid) rescue: 15mg IV/IM q6h; dose based on MTX level and timing. Start within 24–42h of MTX administration. Continue until MTX <0.05 µmol/L.
Glucarpidase (carboxypeptidase G2): 50 units/kg IV — for severe OD (MTX >10 µmol/L at 24–48h). Enzymatic cleavage of MTX.
Also: IV hydration + urinary alkalinisation; reduce leucovorin efficacy if given simultaneously with glucarpidase (48h gap).
Flumazenil (Anexate): 0.2mg IV over 30s; repeat 0.1mg every 60s to max 1mg total. Half-life only 1 hour — watch for re-sedation especially with long-acting BZDs (diazepam, clonazepam).
CAUTION — Flumazenil contraindications:
• BZD-dependent patients (chronic use) — precipitates acute withdrawal seizures
• TCA or other pro-convulsant co-ingestion
• Raised intracranial pressure
• Epilepsy patients on BZD maintenance
In most cases: supportive care + airway management is safer than flumazenil. Reserve for intubation avoidance in low-risk patients.
GCC context: Alcohol consumption exists despite legal restrictions; presentations may be delayed due to social stigma. Non-beverage sources: mouthwash, cleaning products, khamr (home brew).
Recreational Drug Toxicity — GCC Context
Captagon (fenethylline)
Widely encountered in Middle East/GCC. Amphetamine derivative.
Sympathomimetic toxidrome
Severe hypertension, tachycardia
Hyperthermia, agitation, psychosis
Benzodiazepines + cooling
Cannabis / Synthetic Cannabinoids
"Spice" common in GCC youth populations
More severe than natural cannabis
Severe agitation, psychosis, seizures
Hyperthermia, rhabdomyolysis
Supportive; BZDs for agitation
Tramadol Misuse
Widely available, commonly misused in GCC/Middle East region
Treatment: supportive; BZDs for agitation; antihypertensives if needed
Legal status varies in GCC: illegal in Saudi/UAE/Qatar; used in Yemen/Djibouti
Traditional Herbal Remedy Toxicity
Remedy
Toxic Component
Effects
Hawajij (spice mix)
Various herbs, piperine
GI upset, drug interactions
Za'atar (thyme preparations)
Thymol, carvacrol
Hepatotoxicity in large doses
Senna (leaves/pods)
Sennoside glycosides
Severe diarrhoea, hypokalaemia, electrolyte disturbance
Black seed (Nigella sativa)
Thymoquinone
Generally safe; excess: hepatotoxicity
Al-Harjal (Zygophyllum)
Alkaloids
CNS depression, cardiac effects
Pesticide Poisoning
Organophosphates most common class
Carbamates (shorter duration, no ageing of AChE)
Paraquat (irreversible pulmonary fibrosis — no antidote, do NOT give O2 high conc.)
GCC Nursing Exam Prep — MCQ Practice
DHA / MOH / SCFHS / QCHP style questions. Click "Show Answer" after attempting each question.
1. A 28-year-old male presents with pinpoint pupils, respiratory rate of 6/min, GCS 8, and SpO2 88%. Which is the MOST appropriate immediate intervention?
A) Activate charcoal 50g orally
B) Naloxone 0.4–2mg IV/IM and airway support
C) Flumazenil 0.2mg IV
D) Sodium bicarbonate 100mL 8.4% IV
Answer: B — Classic opioid toxidrome (miosis + CNS depression + respiratory depression). Naloxone is the specific antidote with immediate priority. Airway support simultaneously. Activated charcoal is contraindicated with reduced consciousness. Flumazenil is for benzodiazepine reversal. Sodium bicarbonate is for TCA/QRS widening.
2. A patient with organophosphate poisoning receives atropine 4mg IV. The nurse should reassess effectiveness by checking for which finding?
A) Heart rate decreased to less than 60 bpm
B) Pupils becoming dilated
C) Secretions becoming dry and chest clear
D) Blood pressure normalising above 120/80
Answer: C — The endpoint of atropinisation in organophosphate poisoning is DRY SECRETIONS (dry mouth, clear chest, no bronchospasm/bronchorrhoea). Heart rate and blood pressure are secondary endpoints. Pupil dilation is not the target. Insufficient atropine is a common error — underdosing leads to respiratory failure from secretions.
3. A 35-year-old woman took a paracetamol overdose 6 hours ago. Her serum paracetamol level is above the treatment line on the Rumack-Matthew nomogram. Which is the CORRECT first bag of the IV N-acetylcysteine (NAC) protocol?
A) 50mg/kg in 500mL 5% glucose over 4 hours
B) 100mg/kg in 1000mL 5% glucose over 16 hours
C) 150mg/kg in 200mL 5% glucose over 1 hour
D) 200mg/kg in 100mL 0.9% NaCl over 30 minutes
Answer: C — The 21-hour IV NAC Prescott protocol: Bag 1 = 150mg/kg in 200mL 5% glucose over 1 hour (loading dose); Bag 2 = 50mg/kg in 500mL over 4 hours; Bag 3 = 100mg/kg in 1000mL over 16 hours. Use 5% glucose as diluent (not saline for standard protocol). Correct order and rate are frequently tested.
4. A patient with known tricyclic antidepressant overdose develops generalised seizures. The nurse should anticipate which anticonvulsant will be ordered FIRST?
A) Phenytoin 15mg/kg IV
B) Diazepam 10mg IV
C) Physostigmine 2mg IV
D) Levetiracetam 1000mg IV
Answer: B — Benzodiazepines (diazepam, lorazepam) are first-line for seizures in TCA overdose. Phenytoin (A) is CONTRAINDICATED in TCA OD — it also blocks sodium channels, worsens QRS prolongation and cardiac toxicity. Physostigmine (C) is also contraindicated in TCA OD as it can cause asystole. Levetiracetam has limited evidence in acute TCA poisoning.
5. A nurse in a GCC emergency department is caring for a patient with suspected serotonin syndrome following combined tramadol and sertraline use. Which clinical finding is MOST characteristic of serotonin syndrome compared to anticholinergic toxidrome?
A) Urinary retention and dry mouth
B) Mydriasis and tachycardia
C) Clonus and diaphoresis
D) Flushed dry skin and confusion
Answer: C — Clonus (spontaneous or inducible) is the hallmark finding of serotonin syndrome and distinguishes it from anticholinergic toxidrome. Diaphoresis (sweating/wet skin) is also characteristic of serotonin syndrome — anticholinergic causes DRY skin. Mydriasis and tachycardia (B) occur in both. Urinary retention and dry skin (A, D) are anticholinergic features. Hunter criteria requires clonus for diagnosis.
Quick Revision — High-Yield GCC Exam Facts
Naloxone dose: 0.4–2mg IV, repeat q2–3min
NAC bag 1: 150mg/kg over 1 hour
Atropine endpoint in OP: dry secretions
TCA seizures: benzodiazepines NOT phenytoin
TCA hypotension: noradrenaline NOT dopamine
QRS >100ms: sodium bicarbonate
Thiamine: before glucose in alcohol-related coma
Flumazenil caution: BZD-dependent patients
Cyanide antidote: Hydroxocobalamin (Cyanokit) 5g IV