Allergy & Immunology Nursing

Comprehensive Clinical Guide — GCC Nursing Edition

DHA SCFHS MOH QCHP

Allergy Fundamentals

IgE-Mediated Reactions (Type I — Immediate)

Rapid onset within minutes to 1–2 hours of allergen exposure. IgE antibodies bind to mast cells and basophils. Cross-linking by allergen triggers degranulation — releasing histamine, tryptase, leukotrienes, prostaglandins.

Clinical Manifestations

  • Urticaria — wheals, flare, itch
  • Angioedema — deeper dermis/submucosa swelling
  • Allergic Rhinitis — sneezing, watery rhinorrhoea, nasal congestion
  • Allergic Asthma — wheeze, cough, chest tightness
  • Anaphylaxis — systemic life-threatening reaction

Non-IgE-Mediated Reactions

Type II — Cytotoxic

IgG/IgM antibodies bind cell-surface antigens → complement activation → cell lysis. Example: drug-induced haemolytic anaemia (penicillin).

Type III — Immune Complex

Antigen–antibody complexes deposited in tissues → complement activation → inflammation. Example: serum sickness, vasculitis.

Type IV — Delayed (Cell-Mediated)

T-lymphocyte mediated. Onset 48–72 hours post-exposure. Example: contact dermatitis (nickel, latex, fragrances), tuberculin reaction.

Allergen Sources

Food — "Big 8" (USA) / 14 Major (EU/UK)

PeanutTree NutsShellfishFishMilkEggsWheatSoya

EU/UK adds: sesame, celery, mustard, lupin, sulphites, molluscs.

Drugs

PenicillinNSAIDsContrast MediaLatexNeuromuscular blockers

Environmental / Insect

House Dust MiteGrass PollenCat DanderMouldBee venomWasp venom

Allergy Testing Methods

TestTypeMechanism / NotesReading
Skin Prick Test (SPT)In vivo IgEAllergen placed on forearm; lancet introduced. Wheal ≥3 mm vs negative control = positive. Fast, cheap, first-line.15–20 min
Intradermal TestIn vivo IgE0.02 mL allergen injected intradermally. More sensitive than SPT; used for venom/drug allergy. Higher risk of systemic reaction.15–20 min
Patch TestIn vivo T-cell (Type IV)Allergen patches applied to upper back for 48 h, read at 48 h and 96 h. Diagnoses contact dermatitis.48–96 h
RAST / ImmunoCAP (specific IgE)In vitro IgESerum specific IgE measurement. Safe (no reaction risk). Less sensitive than SPT. Useful if dermatographism/eczema or antihistamines cannot be stopped.Same day lab
Nursing point: Antihistamines must be stopped 3–7 days before SPT/intradermal tests. Beta-blockers increase anaphylaxis risk and impair adrenaline response — consult physician before testing.

Pathophysiology Summary

  1. Sensitisation: First allergen exposure → B-cells produce allergen-specific IgE → binds to FcεRI on mast cells & basophils.
  2. Re-exposure: Allergen cross-links IgE on mast cells → signal transduction cascade.
  3. Degranulation: Release of preformed mediators (histamine, tryptase) and newly synthesised mediators (leukotrienes LTC4/LTD4, prostaglandin D2, PAF).
  4. Early phase (0–1 h): Vasodilation, increased vascular permeability, smooth muscle contraction — urticaria, rhinorrhoea, bronchoconstriction.
  5. Late phase (4–8 h): Eosinophil and T-cell recruitment — inflammation, tissue damage; important in asthma and eczema.

Anaphylaxis Recognition & Management

EMERGENCY: Anaphylaxis is a life-threatening systemic hypersensitivity reaction requiring immediate IM adrenaline. Every second counts.

NICE / WAO Diagnostic Criteria

Anaphylaxis is likely when any ONE of the following:

  1. Sudden onset of illness with life-threatening airway, breathing, or circulation problems — even without skin features.
  2. Sudden skin/mucosal changes (urticaria, angioedema, flushing) PLUS airway, breathing, or circulation involvement.
  3. After likely allergen exposure — sudden deterioration in airway, breathing, or circulation (even atypical features).
Skin features are ABSENT in up to 20% of cases — do not rule out anaphylaxis if no rash.

Severity Grading (Ring & Messmer / WAO)

GradeFeatures
Grade ISkin only — urticaria, angioedema, flushing, pruritus
Grade IIMild systemic — mild hypotension, tachycardia, rhinitis, mild dyspnoea
Grade IIISevere anaphylaxis — severe hypotension, bronchospasm, laryngeal oedema, altered consciousness
Grade IVCardiac arrest — circulatory/respiratory arrest

Immediate Management — ABCDE Approach

  1. CALL FOR HELP — Alert resuscitation team / emergency services immediately.
  2. IM ADRENALINE (FIRST-LINE) — 0.5 mg (0.5 mL of 1:1000) into anterolateral thigh. Remove outer clothing if possible but do NOT delay.
  3. POSITION — Lying flat with legs elevated. If vomiting/breathing difficulty: sitting up or recovery position. NEVER stand a patient with anaphylaxis.
  4. AIRWAY — High-flow oxygen 15 L/min via non-rebreather mask. Airway adjuncts as needed.
  5. IV ACCESS — Large-bore IV ×2, IV fluids (crystalloid 500 mL–1 L bolus for hypotension).
  6. REPEAT ADRENALINE — Every 5 minutes if no improvement. No upper limit to doses if needed.
  7. ADJUNCTS (NOT first-line, give after adrenaline): Chlorphenamine 10 mg IM/slow IV + Hydrocortisone 200 mg IV.
  8. MONITORING — Continuous SpO2, BP, HR, ECG.
  9. OBSERVE — Minimum 6–12 hours for biphasic risk (Grade III/IV: admit 24 h).
  10. DISCHARGE — Prescribe 2× adrenaline auto-injectors, written action plan, allergy referral.
Adrenaline Dosing by Age / Weight
Adult (>12 yr or >50 kg)0.5 mg = 0.5 mL of 1:1000 IM
Child 6–12 yr (25–50 kg)0.3 mg = 0.3 mL of 1:1000 IM
Child <6 yr or <25 kg0.15 mg = 0.15 mL of 1:1000 IM
Infant <10 kg0.01 mg/kg IM
SiteAnterolateral thigh (mid-outer, middle third)
Repeat intervalEvery 5 minutes if no improvement
EpiPen / Jext Auto-Injector Technique (Step-by-Step)

EpiPen Technique

  1. Remove from carrier tube; hold in dominant hand (fist), blue safety cap up, orange tip down.
  2. Remove blue safety cap by pulling straight up — do NOT twist.
  3. Place orange tip against outer mid-thigh (clothing may remain on).
  4. Push down firmly until a click is heard — hold for 10 seconds.
  5. Remove and massage the injection site for 10 seconds.
  6. Note time of injection and seek emergency care immediately.
  7. Place used device (needle-tip covered) in sharps bin or return tip-first to carrier tube.

Jext Auto-Injector

  1. Pull off yellow needle cap (straight pull, no twist).
  2. Press black tip firmly against outer thigh at 90° (through clothing if needed).
  3. Hold for 10 seconds until click confirms activation.
  4. Remove; check window has turned red (confirms dose delivered).
  5. Massage site 10 seconds; call 999/112.
  6. Second device may be given after 5 minutes if no improvement.
Both devices deliver adrenaline into the vastus lateralis — correct site is CRITICAL. Accidental injection into a finger/hand is a medical emergency.
Biphasic Anaphylaxis Monitoring Protocol

What is Biphasic Anaphylaxis?

Return of anaphylaxis symptoms 1–72 hours after apparent resolution, without re-exposure to allergen. Occurs in 1–20% of anaphylaxis cases. Unpredictable — cannot reliably be prevented by corticosteroids.

Observation Recommendations

GradeMinimum ObservationSetting
Grade I (mild)2–4 hoursED/Clinic
Grade II (moderate)6 hoursED
Grade III (severe)12–24 hoursHDU/Ward
Grade IV (arrest)24–48 hoursICU

Monitoring Frequency

  • Continuous SpO2, HR, BP for first hour
  • Hourly observations for 4–6 hours
  • 2-hourly thereafter if stable
  • Document tryptase levels: baseline (within 1 h of onset), 1–2 h post-onset, 24 h (convalescent)
Discharge criteria: Symptom-free, stable vitals, adrenaline auto-injectors prescribed ×2, written action plan given, allergy outpatient referral arranged.

Anaphylaxis Recognition & Adrenaline Dose Calculator

Drug Allergy

Penicillin Allergy — The Delabelling Problem

~10% of patients report penicillin allergy, but up to 90% of labelled patients can actually tolerate penicillin when formally tested. The majority had a non-immune side effect (nausea, diarrhoea) or a reaction has waned with time.

Why delabelling matters: Penicillin-allergic label leads to use of broader-spectrum antibiotics → higher rates of C. difficile infection (CDI), MRSA, vancomycin use, treatment failures, and increased costs.

Penicillin Allergy Assessment Pathway

  1. Structured allergy history — original reaction, timing, symptoms, subsequent exposures.
  2. Risk stratification (low/moderate/high) using validated tool (e.g. PEN-FAST score).
  3. Low-risk: direct oral amoxicillin challenge.
  4. Moderate/high-risk: skin prick test → intradermal → oral challenge under medical supervision.
  5. Delabel if tolerated; update patient records across all systems.

Penicillin / Cephalosporin Cross-Reactivity

True cross-reactivity is 1–2% (previously overestimated at 10%). Cross-reactivity is based on R1 side chain similarity, NOT the beta-lactam ring.

  • Amoxicillin & cefadroxil/cefprozil — similar R1 side chains; avoid if amoxicillin allergy confirmed.
  • Most cephalosporins have dissimilar side chains — can be used cautiously after allergy assessment.
  • Carbapenems: <1% cross-reactivity with penicillins.
  • Aztreonam cross-reacts with ceftazidime (same R1 side chain).

NSAID Hypersensitivity

Aspirin-Exacerbated Respiratory Disease (AERD / Samter's Triad)

  • Asthma + Chronic Rhinosinusitis with Nasal Polyps + NSAID sensitivity
  • COX-1 inhibition → reduced prostaglandin E2 → failure to suppress mast cells → excess leukotriene production → severe bronchoconstriction
  • Prevalence: ~10–20% of adult asthmatics
  • Management: avoid all COX-1 NSAIDs; paracetamol generally safe; consider aspirin desensitisation in specialist centre

NSAID-Induced Urticaria / Angioedema

Cross-reactive across NSAIDs (pharmacological, not immunological). Safer alternatives: selective COX-2 inhibitors (celecoxib) — test-dose in clinic.

Radiocontrast / Iodinated Contrast Allergy

Reactions are largely non-IgE-mediated (direct mast cell activation / complement activation) — term "allergy" is technically a misnomer for most reactions.

Pre-medication Regimen (for prior reaction)

  • Prednisolone 30 mg orally at 13 h, 7 h, and 1 h before procedure
  • Chlorphenamine 10 mg IV/IM 1 h before
  • Consider low-osmolar or iso-osmolar contrast agent
  • Have adrenaline available; IV access mandatory

Latex Allergy

Type I IgE-mediated (proteins in natural rubber latex) and Type IV (contact dermatitis from latex chemicals).

Fruit-Latex Syndrome

AvocadoBananaKiwiChestnutPapaya

Latex-Free Environment Protocol

  • Flag patient records prominently; bright allergy wristband
  • Replace all latex gloves (synthetic nitrile/vinyl)
  • Latex-free equipment pack: IV lines, tourniquets, syringes, stethoscope covers
  • Schedule latex-allergic patients as FIRST on operating list
  • Remove all latex sources from room before patient entry

Nursing Drug Allergy Documentation Standards

FieldRequired Information
Drug nameGeneric AND brand name; drug class
Reaction descriptionSpecific symptoms (not just "rash") — urticaria, angioedema, bronchospasm, anaphylaxis
TimingDate of reaction, time from dose to onset, duration
SeverityMild / moderate / severe / anaphylaxis
Treatment requiredAdrenaline / antihistamine / hospitalisation
Verification statusPatient-reported / clinician-confirmed / allergy-tested
Cross-reactantsRelated drugs to avoid (document explicitly)
All drug allergy information must be visible on every page of the electronic patient record, on drug administration records, and communicated at every handover.

Food Allergy & Intolerance

IgE-Mediated Food Allergy vs Food Intolerance

IgE Food AllergyFood Intolerance
MechanismImmune (IgE-mast cell)Non-immune (enzyme/pharmacological)
OnsetMinutes–2 hoursHours–days
Dose dependencySmall doses can reactUsually dose-dependent
Anaphylaxis riskYesNo
ExamplesPeanut, shellfish, milk (child)Lactose intolerance, FODMAP, food additives (sulphites, benzoates)
DiagnosisSPT, specific IgE, OFCElimination/rechallenge, hydrogen breath test

Food Labelling Legislation (EU/UK)

14 major allergens must be declared in bold on pre-packed food:

Cereals containing glutenCrustaceansEggsFishPeanutsSoyaMilkNutsCeleryMustardSesameSulphites >10ppmLupinMolluscs

Natasha's Law (UK, Oct 2021): extends declaration to all PPDS (Pre-Packed for Direct Sale) foods.

Oral Food Challenge (OFC) — Nursing Protocol

OFC must only be performed in facilities equipped for full resuscitation. Adrenaline must be immediately available.

Pre-Challenge Preparation

  • IV access established; resuscitation equipment checked
  • Adrenaline drawn up and labelled; auto-injectors at bedside
  • Antihistamines withheld 5–7 days pre-challenge
  • Patient well (no intercurrent illness/wheeze)
  • Baseline vital signs; peak flow (if asthmatic)
  • Informed consent documented

Challenge Protocol (Incremental Dosing)

  1. Dose 1 (trace): lip/labial contact or 1–5 mg protein
  2. Dose 2: 10–25 mg
  3. Dose 3: 100 mg
  4. Dose 4: 300 mg
  5. Dose 5: Full age-appropriate serving

15–30 min observation between doses. Stop immediately at any objective sign. Document all symptoms, vitals, and treatment given.

Early Introduction — LEAP Study

Learning Early About Peanut Allergy (LEAP) 2015:

  • High-risk infants (severe eczema/egg allergy) randomised to consume or avoid peanut from 4–11 months
  • Result: Early introduction reduced peanut allergy by 80% at age 5
  • Current guidance: introduce peanut, cooked egg, and other allergenic foods from ~6 months (not before 4 months)
  • Severe eczema infants: SPT ± allergy review before introduction

Food Allergy Action Plan — Key Elements

  • Patient name, photo, known allergens, threshold dose (if known)
  • Mild–moderate reaction: antihistamine + monitor
  • Severe / anaphylaxis: EpiPen and call 999 immediately
  • School / workplace copy; EpiPen training for staff
  • Updated annually by allergy team
  • Medical alert bracelet / card recommended
GCC note: Sesame has high prevalence as a food allergen in Middle Eastern diets — tahini, halva, sesame bread. Ensure allergy plans address sesame-containing traditional foods.

Immunotherapy & Biologics

Allergen Immunotherapy (AIT) — Overview

AIT is the only disease-modifying treatment for allergic disease. Mechanism: shifts immune response from Th2 to Th1/regulatory T-cell phenotype; induces allergen-specific IgG4 (blocking antibody); reduces mast cell/basophil sensitivity.

Subcutaneous Immunotherapy (SCIT)

  • Build-up phase: Weekly increasing doses (12–20 weeks)
  • Maintenance phase: Monthly injections for 3–5 years
  • Indications: allergic rhinitis (grass/tree pollen, HDM), venom allergy, some allergic asthma
  • Observe patient 30 minutes post every injection
  • Adrenaline must be immediately available

Sublingual Immunotherapy (SLIT)

  • Drops or tablets placed under tongue daily
  • Suitable for HDM and grass pollen rhinitis
  • First dose administered in clinic (observe 30 min)
  • Subsequent doses at home
  • Better compliance but lower efficacy than SCIT for some allergens
  • Side effects: oral/sublingual itching — usually transient

AIT Contraindications

Absolute Contraindications

  • Severe/uncontrolled asthma (FEV1 <70% predicted)
  • Active autoimmune disease
  • Active malignancy
  • Severe cardiovascular disease
  • Pregnancy (do NOT initiate; may continue maintenance)

Relative Contraindications / Cautions

  • Beta-blocker use — impairs adrenaline response to anaphylaxis; discuss risk/benefit with physician
  • ACE inhibitors — increased angioedema risk
  • Intercurrent infection or febrile illness — defer injection
  • Recent allergen exposure / high pollen count — reduce build-up dose
Subcutaneous Immunotherapy (SCIT) Injection Protocol & Emergency Readiness

Pre-Injection Checklist

  1. Verify patient identity (2 identifiers).
  2. Review last reaction grade; adjust dose if needed.
  3. Check: no current infection, no asthma exacerbation, no fever.
  4. Peak flow measurement if asthmatic (do not inject if <80% personal best).
  5. Confirm adrenaline (1:1000) drawn up and at bedside.
  6. Check resuscitation trolley and defibrillator present.
  7. IV access not routinely required but consider for build-up phase.

Injection Technique

  1. Correct extract vial, correct patient, correct dose (5 rights).
  2. Site: outer upper arm (deltoid region), subcutaneous layer.
  3. Aspirate before injecting — if blood-tinged, discard and re-inject different site.
  4. Inject slowly; avoid IV injection (systemic risk).
  5. Record time of injection; start 30-min observation timer.
  6. Observe for local reaction (swelling >5 cm = large local reaction → adjust next dose).
Systemic reaction management: Grade I — antihistamine + observe. Grade II+ — IM adrenaline immediately. Notify physician. No further injections that day.

Biologic Therapies in Allergy

DrugTargetIndicationKey Nursing Points
Omalizumab (Xolair)Anti-IgE (binds free IgE)Severe allergic asthma; chronic spontaneous urticaria (CSU)SC injection every 2–4 weeks. Observe 30 min after first 3 doses (anaphylaxis risk). Dose based on IgE level and weight. Pre-filled syringe or vial.
Dupilumab (Dupixent)IL-4Rα (blocks IL-4 & IL-13)Moderate–severe atopic dermatitis; severe asthma (type 2); CRS with NP; EoESC injection every 2 weeks (loading dose ×2). Self-injection after training. Common side effect: conjunctivitis, injection site reaction.
Mepolizumab (Nucala)Anti-IL-5Severe eosinophilic asthma; EGPA; HESSC 100 mg every 4 weeks. In-clinic injection. Observe 30 min first dose. Reduce oral corticosteroid use gradually.
Benralizumab (Fasenra)Anti-IL-5Rα (eosinophil depletion)Severe eosinophilic asthmaSC 30 mg: every 4 weeks ×3, then every 8 weeks. Rapid eosinophil depletion. Pre-filled autoinjector — self/clinic injection.
Tezepelumab (Tezspire)Anti-TSLPSevere uncontrolled asthma (all phenotypes)SC 210 mg every 4 weeks. Observe 30 min first dose. Effective regardless of eosinophil count.

GCC Context & Exam Preparation

Allergy Epidemiology in GCC

  • Rising prevalence of allergic diseases across Gulf states — parallels urbanisation and westernisation
  • Hygiene hypothesis: reduced exposure to infections and diverse microbiota in early life → failure of immune regulation → increased Th2 responses
  • High rates of allergic rhinitis (40–50% in some GCC surveys), asthma (up to 20% children), atopic dermatitis
  • Grass pollen season varies: Bahrain/Kuwait prominent in spring; year-round perennial allergens (HDM) in humid coastal areas
  • Extreme heat reduces outdoor activity but increases indoor dust mite and mould burden (air conditioning)

Arabic Food Allergens

High Prevalence in Middle Eastern Diets

  • Sesame (Simsim): Tahini, hummus, halva, sesame bread (ka'ak), fattoush dressing — one of the most common food allergens in GCC; now listed as a major allergen in USA (2023)
  • Cumin (Kamoun): Cross-reacts with other Apiaceae (celery, carrot, coriander) — atypical but clinically relevant
  • Fenugreek (Hulba): Cross-reacts with peanut and soya (legume family) — important for peanut-allergic patients
  • Camel milk: Used as a health alternative but contains proteins cross-reactive with cow's milk; not safe for cow's milk allergy in most patients

EpiPen Storage in GCC Heat

Adrenaline degrades above 25°C — a critical concern in GCC where ambient temperatures regularly exceed 45°C.

  • Store at 15–25°C (room temperature); do NOT refrigerate (crystallisation risk)
  • Protect from direct sunlight and vehicle glove compartments in summer
  • Insulated carry cases (e.g. FRIO wallet) extend safe carry time in heat
  • Inspect solution: if discoloured (brown/pink) or contains particles — replace immediately
  • Check expiry dates at each patient contact; carry two devices at all times
Patients travelling to or living in hot climates must be counselled on proper EpiPen storage at every allergy appointment.

Ramadan Implications for Allergy Management

  • Antihistamine timing: Take non-sedating antihistamines (cetirizine, loratadine) at Iftar or Suhoor to maintain 24 h coverage; avoid missed doses
  • Food allergen risk at Iftar: Large communal meals with multiple dishes — sesame, nuts, shellfish exposure risk increases; patients must communicate allergy clearly
  • EpiPen carrying during prayer (Salah): Permitted as medical necessity — religious scholars confirm carrying medications does not invalidate prayer
  • Immunotherapy during Ramadan: SCIT injections may be rescheduled to evening hours; maintain hydration status assessment before injections
  • Asthma inhalers: Dry powder inhalers generally considered permissible during fasting (majority scholarly view); discuss with patient's religious scholar if in doubt

GCC Nursing Regulatory Competencies

RegulatorRelevant Allergy/Immunology Competencies
DHA (Dubai)Recognition and first response to anaphylaxis; drug allergy documentation; safe administration of immunotherapy; biologic medication administration
DOH (Abu Dhabi)Allergy history taking and documentation; anaphylaxis emergency management; patient education for allergen avoidance
SCFHS (Saudi Arabia)Immunology nursing content in specialist nursing examinations; allergy nursing procedures aligned with MOH Saudi guidelines; skin testing assistance
QCHP (Qatar)Anaphylaxis management per QCHP medication administration standards; allergy alert documentation in Cerner/HIS systems; auto-injector patient education
MOH Kuwait/BahrainAdherence to national anaphylaxis protocols; allergy clinic nursing scope of practice including SPT assistance

GCC Exam Prep — MCQs (DHA / MOH / SCFHS / QCHP Style)

Click "Show Answer" after attempting each question.

1. A 28-year-old nurse reports a patient developed generalised urticaria, audible wheeze, and hypotension 15 minutes after receiving IV co-amoxiclav. What is the FIRST action the nurse should take?

  • A. Administer chlorphenamine 10 mg IV
  • B. Administer hydrocortisone 200 mg IV
  • C. Administer adrenaline 0.5 mg IM into the anterolateral thigh
  • D. Apply high-flow oxygen and call for help
Answer: C — IM adrenaline 0.5 mg (1:1000) into the anterolateral thigh is the FIRST-LINE treatment for anaphylaxis. Antihistamines and corticosteroids are adjuncts only and must never delay adrenaline. Calling for help and oxygen are important but adrenaline is the priority.

2. A patient with a documented penicillin allergy (rash 20 years ago) requires antibiotic treatment for a surgical prophylaxis. The allergy team has risk-stratified the patient as low-risk. What is the most appropriate next step?

  • A. Use vancomycin as the safest alternative
  • B. Perform a direct oral amoxicillin challenge
  • C. Administer cefazolin without any testing
  • D. Skin prick test is mandatory before any beta-lactam
Answer: B — For low-risk penicillin allergy labels (mild/delayed reactions, >10 years ago), current guidelines support a direct oral amoxicillin challenge without preceding skin testing. This facilitates safe delabelling, avoiding unnecessary use of broad-spectrum antibiotics like vancomycin.

3. A patient receives their first subcutaneous allergen immunotherapy (SCIT) injection. After how long must they be observed, and what must be immediately available throughout?

  • A. 15 minutes; antihistamine
  • B. 30 minutes; adrenaline (1:1000)
  • C. 1 hour; oral corticosteroids
  • D. 20 minutes; salbutamol inhaler
Answer: B — All patients receiving SCIT must be observed for a minimum of 30 minutes post-injection. Adrenaline (1:1000) must be immediately available for all immunotherapy visits. Systemic reactions can be delayed and the 30-minute window captures the majority of immediate reactions.

4. In GCC countries, which food allergen has particularly high clinical relevance due to its prevalent use in traditional Middle Eastern cuisine and is now recognised as a major allergen in the USA (2023)?

  • A. Cumin
  • B. Sesame
  • C. Fenugreek
  • D. Camel milk
Answer: B — Sesame is a highly prevalent allergen in GCC countries, found in tahini, hummus, halva, and sesame-coated breads. The USA added sesame as the 9th major allergen in 2023 (FASTER Act). It is already listed among the EU/UK 14 major allergens. Nurses must specifically enquire about sesame in allergy histories in GCC settings.

5. A patient presents 4 hours after apparent resolution of anaphylaxis (previously treated with adrenaline). They are now developing urticaria and mild wheeze again. What term describes this phenomenon and what is the minimum recommended observation period for Grade III anaphylaxis?

  • A. Rebound anaphylaxis; 2 hours
  • B. Biphasic anaphylaxis; 12–24 hours
  • C. Protracted anaphylaxis; 6 hours
  • D. Recurrent urticaria; 4 hours
Answer: B — This is biphasic anaphylaxis — a recurrence of symptoms 1–72 hours after apparent resolution without re-exposure. It occurs in up to 20% of cases. Grade III (severe) anaphylaxis requires a minimum of 12–24 hours hospital observation. All patients must be warned about biphasic reactions at discharge and provided with written instructions and adrenaline auto-injectors.
GCC Allergy & Immunology Nursing Guide  |  For educational purposes only  |  Always follow local protocols